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05-21-2009, 01:25 PM
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#11 | |
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Herfer Grrrrl
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Re: Ask The Rabbi!!
Quote:
In a mystery tradition, seekers must go through ordeals to qualify for initiation, and/or prove to their teachers that they are worthy and deeply committed before they are permitted to join the faith and given the key to the initatory mysteries. A fairly large number of indigenous and "folk" faiths would qualify for this designation. Wicca definitely does, as the most popular modern survival of the ancient British folk traditions. The members of a non-proselytizing faith are still not immune from making war on out-groups, since they still compete for resources. Jews do have a significantly better track record in that department than other monotheists, and it's observed and appreciated. If a fundamental principle of your faith is "live and let live, we do not need to make others follow our religious taboos", why is a prohibition against immoral sex acts included in the Noahide laws? Does any particular sex act between two or more consenting adults qualify as "immoral" by rabbinical judgment? If so, why? Some other faiths, including the one I grew up in, have a rede to the effect of, "An it harm none, do as you will." In short, anything two (or three, or four, or five....) healthy consenting adults of any gender configuration choose do together in their own homes, in love or in lust, harms no one and should be fine by everyone. Consequently the only reason for passing a law against it is that it violates your own religious taboo or your personal sensibilities. So.....if that's one of the Noahide laws that non-Jews are expected to abide by, what is the rationale behind it? And what constitutes sexual immorality according to this codification? |
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