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View Poll Results: How do you use the word Puro? | |||
A cigar whose parts are all from one country. |
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105 | 82.03% |
It means cigar. |
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7 | 5.47% |
It's my Donkey's name. |
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4 | 3.13% |
I like cake. |
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30 | 23.44% |
Multiple Choice Poll. Voters: 128. You may not vote on this poll |
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#1 |
puta por Ninfas!
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We standardized languages for a reason: to communicate effectively. While languages are fluid over long periods of time, improper usage is improper usage, period, end of story.
A "puro" is a cigar whose component tobaccos are all grown in the same country. Any usage outside that single parameter is incorrect, regardless of the status of the one mangling the language.
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#2 |
Formerly MarkinOR
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Well, then we're talking about the milk, flour, eggs, sugar, and so on that originates from the same regional market...
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"Don't worry, God will work out His plan for your life..." Psalm 138 8 |
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#3 |
Cranky Habanophile
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Its amazing how we American's find it necessary to force those who speak other languages to conform to our bastardized usage of their colloquialisms.
Why is it so important that others use their language the way we see fit? ![]() |
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#4 |
YNWA
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Exactly.
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Be more concerned with your character than your reputation, because your character is what you really are, while your reputation is merely what others think you are. -John Wooden |
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#5 | |
Dear Lord, Thank You.
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Otherwise, if everyone calls a spoon something different, it'd really make it a pain in the ass to ask a waitress to get me something with which to eat my soup. ![]()
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#6 | |
Cranky Habanophile
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There is no such thing as standardized language, each region/country has their own colloquialisms and slang. |
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#7 |
Have My Own Room
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So...................your saying if I went to mexico, they would speak english for me?
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#8 | |
Guest
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First of all, in order to "communicate effectively," at least in (North) American English, one should state subject matter. So...who is "we?" Is "we" you and your best friend, members of CA, BOTL, North Americans in the US, or some other group? I'm going to assume for a moment that you mean North Americans in the US. With this assumption, are you stating that "we" standardized the Spanish language? If so, when did this happen?
"While languages are fluid over long periods of time, improper usage is improper usage..." This has some truth to it. When did "football" become "soccer?" "Any usage outside [of a particular language's word's] single parameter is incorrect, regardless of the status of the one mangling the language." You do realize that North American's in the US do not speak proper English, don't you? Quote:
BTW, did you know that "pedo" is literally translated as "fart?" If you translate it with "puro" literally into American English it translates as "pure fart?" Now, you can claim this refers to a fart that only come from one person (such as Peter), but in Spanish it is more akin to the American English slang phrase "bullsh*t," which, ironically, is quite relevant in your claim. Lastly, part of being able to "communicate effectively" is not using absolutes such as "period" and "end of story." |
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