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croatan · 07-01-2010, 03:58 PM

/begin non-legal advice/

In Texas, as I understand it, if the CCRs provide for a preemptive lien for such purposes (which many do), then it's permissible , as the lien already exists (and you've already agreed to it by taking subject to the CCRs) and any additional filings would be formalities.

I have no clue about Oregon, but if it's important to you, give me a call sometime and I'm sure we can figure it out.

/end non-legal advice/

07-01-2010, 03:58 PM	#5
croatan Missing Peter Join Date: Oct 2008 First Name: James Location: la Vuelta Abajo Posts: 3,727 Trading: (6)	Re: Home owner's association question /begin non-legal advice/ In Texas, as I understand it, if the CCRs provide for a preemptive lien for such purposes (which many do), then it's permissible , as the lien already exists (and you've already agreed to it by taking subject to the CCRs) and any additional filings would be formalities. I have no clue about Oregon, but if it's important to you, give me a call sometime and I'm sure we can figure it out. /end non-legal advice/ __________________ Fumo ergo sum.